CNS MCQ’S 1.Some of the symptoms of low‑dose benzodiazepine withdrawal are A. tremors, delirium and cramps.
B. anxiety, panic and increased blood pressure.
C. decreased heart rate, confusion and awakenings
. a fear of multiple‑choice questions and small furry creatures.
E. None of the above
2.The metabolism of benzodiazepines can be slowed by
A. alcohol.B. barbital.C. caffeine.D. the presence of food in the stomach.
E. None of the above.
3.Benzodiazepines alter the functioning of which transmitter?
A. dopamineB. NEC. 5‑HTD. peptidesE. GABA
4.Withdrawal effects of alcohol
A. are seldom serious and never life threatening.
B. are frequently treated by physicians with caffeine or other mild stimulants.
C. last less than two days.
D. frequently involve hallucinations of large animals with unusual coloring.
E. can cause death if not treated.
5.Which of the following is a disadvantage of using the benzodiazepines to treat insomnia?
A. respiratory depression B. low margin of safetyC. REM suppression D. Hangover
E. Both C. and D.
6.The benzodiazepines have which effect on the GABA receptor‑ionophore complex?
A. they act as GABA agonists at the GABA receptor
B. they act as GABA antagonists at the GABA receptor
C. they potentiate the ability of GABA to open the ionophore
D. they directly cause the ionophore to open
E. they compete with GABA for GABA receptors
7.Which of the following is not an effect on the benzodiazepines?
A. muscle relaxation
B. anticonvulsant effects
C. increased appetite
D. respiratory depression
E. increase in beta waves and a decrease in alpha waves in the EEG
8.Benzodiazepines are typically used to treat
A. Anxiety disordersB. DepressionC. BipolarD. SchizophreniaE. PTSD
9.The preferred treatment of status epilepticus is intravenous administration of A.diazepam B.chlordiazepoxide C.flumazenil D.triazolam E.midazolam 10.Which of the following is not associated with enhancement of the activity of GABA? A. Chlordiazepoxide B. Phenobarbital C. Diazepam D. Valproic acid E. Clorpromazine 11.which of the following is described as competitive benzodiazepine A.ketamine B.chlordiazepoxide C.Flumazenil D.Midazolam E.Triazolam 9.The difference between typical and atypical antipsychotic drugs is that
A. typical antipsychotics have more parkinsonian side‑effects than atypical antipsychotics.
B. typical antipsychotics are normally more useful in treating positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
C. atypical antipsychotics are more useful in treating bipolar disorder than typical antipsychotics.
D. atypical antipsychotics can cause pleasant subjective effects and are subject to abuse.
E. Both A and B.
10.Antipsychotic drugs are sometimes given as depot injections because
A. they are not readily absorbed orally.
B. they have a terrible taste that most people dislike.
C. they can become addicting if the patient is allowed to take them at any time.
D. they have undesirable side effects when taken by other routes.
E. patients do not like them and do not take them reliably on their own.
11.The blocking of the D2 receptors of the dopaminergic _______ seems to be responsible for the antipsychotic effects of most neuroleptics.
A. mesolimbic system B. nigrastriatal systemC. caudate putamen D. basal ganglia
E. cortical system
12.Antipsychotic drugs
A. have a very high therapeutic index and are extremely safe.
B. are often used to commit suicide.
C. have a very low therapeutic index and are quite toxic.
D. are responsible for many overdose deaths.
E. All of B., C., and D.
13.Apart from the treatment of psychotic behavior, the antipsychotics are used to treat
A. nausea. B. Tourette’s syndrome. C. Senile dementia.D. hiccups.
E. All of the above.
14.Which of the following will relieve withdrawal from the opiates?
A. cocaine B. nicotine C. alcohol D. naloxone E. PCP
15.Which of the following best describes the abuse potential of the antipsychotic drugs?
A. they are highly reinforcing and subject to abuse
B. they are modestly reinforcing and sometimes sold on the street as "downers"
C. they are only reinforcing to those who have a history of sedative‑hypnotic abuse
D. they are never abused
E. the abuse potential has not been determined
16.Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
A. affective flattening
B. feelings of grandeur
C. hallucinations and delusions
D. irrational beliefs
E. loosening association between ideas
17.Which of the following is a pure opiate antagonist?
A. cyclazocine B. pentazocine C. nalorphine D. methadone E. naloxone
18.After taking antipsychotics drugs for a period of time, about 30 percent of patients show a condition called
A. epilepsy. B. tardive dyskinesia. C. delirium tremens.D. akathesia.
E. physical dependence.
1. Which of the following agents possesses pharmacological actions characterized by high antipsychotic potency, high potential for extrapyramidal toxicity, and a low likelihood of causing sedation? (A) Thioridazine (B) Haloperidol (C) Flumazenil (D) Clozapine (E) Carbamazepine 2. Tardive dyskinesia after long-term antipsychotic administration is thought to be due to (A) A decrease in dopamine synthesis (B) Enhanced stimulation of D2 dopamine autoreceptors (C) Loss of cholinergic neurons in striatum (D) Up-regulation of striatal dopamine receptors (E) Increased tolerance to antipsychotic agents 3. Which neuroleptic agent has the lowest likelihood of producing tardive dyskinesia? (A) Imipramine (B) Chlorpromazine (C) Clozapine (D) Fluoxetine (E) Thiothixene 4. Which clinical condition poses the greatest concern to a patient on antipsychotic therapy? (A) Epilepsy (B) Nausea associated with motion sickness (C) Manic phase of bipolar disorder (D) Hallucinogen-induced psychosis (E) Tourette’s syndrome 5. Mr. James began haloperidol therapy for schizophrenia and within several weeks developed bradykinesia, rigidity, and tremor. Though his psychoses were well controlled, he was switched to another agent, thioridazine, which proved to be as effective as haloperidol in managing his primary condition and did not result in the undesirable symptoms. The most likely explanation for these observations is that (A) Haloperidol acts presynaptically to block dopamine release. (B) Haloperidol activates GABAergic neurons in the striatum. (C) Haloperidol has a low affinity for D2-receptors. (D) Thioridazine has greater alpha 1-adrenergic blocking activity than haloperidol. (E) Thioridazine has greater muscarinic blocking activity in brain than haloperidol. 6. Which drug may be useful in the management of the neuroleptic malignant syndrome, although it can worsen the symptoms of schizophrenia? (A) Risperidone (B) Thiothixene (C) Haloperidol (D) Bromocriptine (E) Valproic acid Akathisia, Parkinsonism—like syndrome, galactorrhea and amenorrhea are side effects of haoazine, caused by A. Blockade of M-receptors B. Blockade of α1-receptors C. Blockade of DA-receptors D. Supersensitivity of α1-receptors E. Stimulation of nicotinic-receptors In addition to its use in the treatment of SCZ, Clorpromazine is effective A. In reducing nausea and vomiting B. As an antihypertensive agent C. As an antihistaminic D. In the treatment of depression E. For treating bipolar affective disorder Haloperidol may best be characterized by which of the following statements? A. it is classified as a phenothiazine B. is a selective dopamine receptor(D2) agoists C. its mechanism of action is completely different from of clorpromazine D. it is more potent as an antipsychotic drug than is clorpromazine E. it produce a lower incidence of EPS reaction than does clorpromazine which of the following antipsychotics requires weekly white blood cell counts? A. Haloperidol B. Clorpromazine C. Clozapine D. Olanzapine E. Molindone .A 26-years-old female with reaction depression complains of missing her period and having milk discharge from her breasts. She has no sign of pregnancy, including a negative pregnancy test. Which of the following mighr have caused these findings? A. Clorpromazine B. Amoxapne C. Fluoxetine D. Mirtazapine E. Tranylcypromine 1.Carbidopa is useful in the treatment of PD because it A.is a precursor of levodopa B.is a dopaminergic receptor agonist C.prevents peripheral biotransformation of L-dopa D.prevents a breakdown of dopamine E.promote a decreased concentration of L-dopa in the nigrostruatum 2.Which of the following is a selective inhibitor of MAO-B and useful in treating Parkinsonism? A. Bromocriptine B. Carbidopa C. Selegiline D. Phenelaine E. Tranylcypromine 3.A drug that specifically enhances metabolically the activity of brain dopamine is A. Benztropine B. Selegiline C. Bromocriptine D. Clorpromazine E. Trihexyphenidyl 4.A dopamine receptor agonist that is useful in the therapy of PD is A. Selegiline B. Bromocriptine C. Apomorpine D. Amantidine E. Belladonna 5.Which of the following agents is a selective dopamine receptor(D2) agoists? A. Fluphenazine B. Bromocriptine C. Promethazine D. Haloperidol E. Clorpromazine