china ko medical question

[chetnarayan]

more ..........
http://www.xenomed.com/forums/medica...ur-memory.html

[rave]

that wud be gr8...... and if any dai/dd frm our university wud act positively it wud be of gr8 value <for us.>.. thnks.... wcums..

[sarosem]

Originally Posted by Admin

Dear sarosem,

We are definitely keen on it and keeping eye on this discussion. Even more categories can be created according to the need, therefore its not a problem at all.

There are very dedicated members in this forum and I am sure they will be happy to see the continuous growth of this forum in our community.

Keep up the spirit high.

thanks for your positive support.

[khagen]

i will post xinxiang medical college's question soon
now i m busy in exam so.. give me some time for this

[bharat]

ok guys here is some from me ,this is phermacology questions form "Weifang me. collage".
Hope it will be little help.to . all----->

Type A choice questions:
1. All of the following produce a significant decrease in peripheral resistance EXCEPT: answer: D
A. chronic administration of diuretics
B. hydralazine
C. ACE inhibitors
D. β-R blockers
E. Calcium channel blockers
2. Which of the following most directly describes the mechanism of action of digitalis? answer: C
A. Increases the intracellular level of ATP
B. Stimulates production of cAMP
C. inhibits sodium-potassium ATPase
D. decreases intracellular sodium concentration
E. Decreases release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
3. All of the following are useful in the treatment of digitalis overdose EXCEPT: answer: E
A. anti-digoxin Fragments
B. dietary potassium supplements for patients being treated concomitantly with diuretics
C. lidocaine
D. phenytoin
E. quinidine
4. Which one of the following statements concerning congestive heart failure is correct? answer: C
A. Digitoxin is more widely used than digoxin because it has a shorter half-life
B. Serum levels of digoxin can be decreased by quinidine
C. Loop diuretics are used in patients with renal insufficiency
D. Digoxin is eliminated primarily in the bile
E. Congenital heart defects are the most common cause of congestive heart failure
5. Which one of the following aggravates a digitalis induced arrhythmia? answer: D
A. Decreased serum calcium
B. Decreasing heart rate with propranolol
C. Decreased serum sodium
D. Decreased serum potassium
E. Decreased serum angiotensin
6. Which one of the following drugs decrease de novo cholesterol biosynthesis by inhibiting the enzyme HMG CoA reductase? answer: C
A. Niacin
B. Gemfibrozil
C. Lovastatin
D. Colestyramine
E. Probucol
7. Which one of the following is the most serious main side effect of statins and this effect would be increased if a statin is taken with gemfibrozil, ciclosporin or nicotinic acid. answer: B
A. Gastrointestinal problems
B. Rhabdomyolysis
C. Elevated blood pressure
D. Migraine headaches
E. palpitations
8. All of the following measures can be used in the treatment of digoxin-induced arrhythmia EXCEPT answer: B
A. stopping digoxin administration
B. diuretic agents such as furosemide are used to promote the excretion of digoxin
C. phenytoin administration
D. atropine administration
E. lidocaine administration
9. Among the following anti-hypertensive drugs, which can cause dry cough？
answer: B
A. verapamil
B. captopril
C. losartan
D. propranolol
E. nifedipine
10. The mechanism of anti-hypertensive effect of losartan is answer: C
A. decrement of renin activity
B. inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme
C. blockade of the angiotensin Ⅱ receptors
D. increment of kinin synthesis
E. causing vasodilation directly
11. Which of the following hypertensive patients is most suited for primary therapy with hydrochlorothiazide? answer: E
A. patients with gout
B. patients with hyperlipidemia
C. young hypertensive patients with rapid resting heart rate
D. patients with impaired renal function
E. elderly patients
12. Which of the following drugs acts at central imidazoline (I1) recptors?
answer: E
A. verapamil
B. enalapril
C. hydralazine
D. minoxidil
E. clonidine
13.All of the following statements concerning nitroglycerin are correct EXCEPT:
A.It cause an elevation of intracellular cGMP
B.It undergoes significant first-pass metabolism in the liver
C.It may cause significant reflex tarchycardia
D.It significantly decreases AV conduction=
E.It can cause postual hypotention

14.The pharmacological effects of nitroglycerin are correct EXCEPT:
A. decreasing the preload
B. contracting smooth muscle=
C. decreasing the afterload
D. dilating the coronary artery
E. reducing platelet adhesion and aggregation

15.Which group of the following drugs is the first choice for variant angina pectoris:
A. calcium channel blockers =
B. β-blockers
C. nitrate
D.NSAIDs
E.anticoagulants

16.Which group of the following drugs can NOT be used in variant angina pectoris:
A. calcium channel blockers
B. β-blockers =
C. nitrate
D.NSAIDs
E.anticoagulants

17.Which one of the following adverse effects associated with nitroglycerin is CORRECT:
A.hypertention
B.throbbing headache=
C.brandycardia
D.sexual dysfunction
E.anemia

18.All of the following mechanism of action correctly match a drug EXCEPT:
A.quinidine: Block Na+ channel
B.amiodarone: Block K+ channel
C.veripamil: Block Ca++ channel
D.propranolol: Block β-adrenoceptor
E.lidocaine: Block CL channel=—

19.Which one of the following classification of antiarrythmic drugs is INCORRECT:
A.Class IB moderate potency =
B.Class IC high potency
C.Class II β-blocker
D.Class III the drugs prolonging APD
E.Class IV calcium channel blocker

20.Which one of the following statements of quinidine is INCORRECT:
A.depress conduction in atria, ventricles and His-Purkije system
B. depress pacemaker rate of ectopic pacemakers
C. increase excitability=
D. anticholinergic effect
E.α-receptor blocking effect

21.Which one of the following statements about arrythmatic drug is CORRECT:
A. They may reduce abnormal automaticity=
B. They may reduce afterdepolarization=
C. They may abolish reentry=
D. They all affect Na+ channels in the cell membrane
E. They are equally useful in artrial and ventricular arrythmias

24.Which one of the following statements about calcium channel blockers is CORRECT:
A. They mainly relax arterial smooth muscle and have little effects on venous beds=
B. The effects of diltiazem are intermediate between the dihydropyridines and verapamil=
C. Nifedipine do not have direct effects on conduction or automaticity =
D. Nifedipine can cause reflex increases in heart rate =
E. Verapamil has direct negtive effects to the heart=

25.The calcium channel blockers can be used in :
A. Arrhythmias=
B. Angina=
C. hypertension=
D. brandycardia
E. hypotension


Assay Questions
1. Why are the ACEI used as regular therapeutic drugs in the treatment of CHF at present?
2. Which drugs used in CHF would reverse myocardial remodeling and reduce overall mortality in patients with heart failure?
3. Which drugs belong to the first-line drugs therapy for mild congestive heart failure in current?
4. What is the benefits of Combined use of nitrates with Propranolol in angina pectoris
5.What is the mechenism of action of nitrates in treating agina pectoris?
6. Please describe the adverse reaction of nitroglycerin.
7.Why a patient with variant agina pectoris can not useβ-blocker?
8.Please describe the machenism and clinical use of HMG CoA reductase inhibitor.
9.Why the bile-binding resin can decrease cholestol in the blood?
10.How many classes of the first-line antihypertensive drugs used currently?
11.Please describe thme mechanism if antihypertisive effect of ACEI, β-blocker, diuretics, calcium channal blocker.
enjoy....there are lots of part i will be posting in subsequent days later when i am free ok. see u all later

[bharat]

this is from part- "antibiotic" enjoy solving these easy ones...
Single choice
1.which of the following agents inhibit(s) dihydrofolate reductase and interfere(s) with incorperation of PABA into folic acid ?
A.trimethoprim B.pyrimethamine C.methotrexate D.sulfimethoxazoles(SMZ)
E. cyclophosphamide
2.which of the following statements is wrong ?
A.isoniazid readily penetrates cells and caseous tuberculous lesions
B. isoniazid can cause peripherial neuritis
C. rifampin is primarily used in the treatment of tuberculosis
D.rifampin is a inhibitor of liver microsomal enzyma
E.both isoniazid and rifampin have liver toxicity
3.the patients with acute or chronic suppurative osteomyelitis can be given
A.vancomycin B.bacitracin C.polymyxin D.clindamycin E.rifampin
16.metronidazole can be used in treatment of patients with
A.syphilis B.bacterial dysentery C.gonorrhea(This treatment regimen includes using one of the following:
· ceftriaxone, 125 mg (milligrams) injected into a muscle, one time
· cefixime, 400 mg by mouth, one time
· ciprofloxacin - oral, 500 mg by mouth, one time
· ofloxacin - oral, 400 mg by mouth, one time
· Spectinomycin, 2 grams injected into a muscle, one time
· cefuroxime Axotal, 1 gram by mouth, one time
· cefpodoxime proxetil, 200 mg by mouth, one time
· enoxacin, 400 mg given by mouth, one time
· erythromycins - oral, 500 mg by mouth, four times a day for one week)
D.anaerobic infections E.erysipelas (penicillin are used)
4..a drug that inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and can be used to treat patients with tuberculosis is
A. isoniazid B. streptomycin C. rifampin D.ethambutol E. ciprofloxacin
5.the drug of choice to treat chronic myelocytic leukemia is
A.6-mercaptopurine B.methotrexate C.vincristin D.vinblastin E.busulfan(myleran)
6.the antibiotic which is useful to treat both the typhoid fever and typhus fever is
A.ampicillin B.chloramphenicol C.tetracycline D.carbenicillin E.Gentamicin.
7.the first choice of drugs in the treatment of epidemic cerebrospinal menigitis is
A.ampicillin B.SMZco C.chloromycetin D.SD E.penicillin
8.the drug which is active against rickettsia is
A.lincomycin B.tetracycline C.penicillin G D.streptomycin E.tobramycin.

Please explain the following pharmacological terms
1.Superinfection 2. antibacterial drugs 3.chemotherapy 4. antibacterial spectrum
5. antibacterial activity 6. MIC 7.MBC 8.chemotherapeutic index
9. PAE 10. antibiotics

Assay questions:
1. please describe the characteristics of four generations of cephalosporins
2. Please describe the mechanism of resistance of bacteria

[bharat]

Peptic Ulcer, Glucocoticoids & thyroid Disease realated questions
SEm. EXAM QUESTION
Choice questions
TYPE A: SIMPLE CHOICE
1.Hyperthyroidism can be treated by all of the following drugs except which one?
A. Surgical removal of part of the thyroid gland
B. T3 and T4
C. Large dose of iodide
D. Radioactive iodide
E. Thioureas
2. Which one of the following doesn’t belong to the symptoms of hyperthyroidism?
A. tachycardia
B. nervousness
C. poor resistance to cold
D. body wasting
E. fine tremor
3. Which one of the following is true?
A. Insulin can be administered orally.
B. Insulin is always required therapy in NIDDM.
C. Insulin is useful in the treatment of diabetic coma
D. The most serious adverse reaction of Insulin is allergic reactions
E. The half time of Insulin is very long
4. Which of the following is not true?
A. one of the most common side effects of oral hypoglycemic agents is gastrointestinal disturbance
B. the most serious consequence of insulin overdose is hypoglycemia
C. weight reduction is often of therapeutic help in obese NIDDM patients
D. Insulin and glucocorticoids have similar effects on metabolism
E. Biguanides can be used in NIDDM alone
5. Which one of the following statements about glucocorticoids is not true?
A. They may produce peptic ulcer.
B. They are contraindicated in patients with serious hypertension.
C. they are used in the treatment of Addison’s disease.
D. they are useful in the treatment of shock.
E. they can cause hypoglycemia
6. Which of the following is the severe adverse reaction of methylthiouracil?
A. Toxic hepatitis
B. Granulocytopenia
C. Gastrointestinal reactions
D. Skin rash
E. Enlargement of lymph nodes
7. Which of the following symptoms is a withdrawal syndrome of glucocorticoids?
A. Induction and aggravation of infections
B. Rebound phenomenon
C. Truncal obesity
D. Hypertension
E. Osteoporosis
8.Among all of the following drugs, which one is ineffective in relieving acute symptoms of asthma?
A. beclomethasone
B. albuterol(salbutamol)
C. theophylline
D. cromolyn(sodium cromoglycate)
E. isoprenaline
9. Which of the following is the most important approach in preventing peptic ulcers from recurrence?
A. coating the ulcer crater
B. eradicating infection with H. Pylori
C. inhibiting secretion of gastric acid at the proton pump
D. blocking receptor activation of gastric acid secretion
E. neutralizing secreted gastric acid
10. All of the following is correct except
A. Ocytocin and vasopressin are synthesized in posterior pituitary
B. the structures of ocytocin and vasopressin are very similar
C. vasopressin can cause antidiuresis
D. oxytocin can promote lactation
E. oxytocin can cause vasoconstriction
11. Which drug is effective in heparin-induced hemorrhage?
A. tranexamic acid
B. vitamin K
C. vitamin B12
D. protamine sulfate
E. epinepherin
12. Which drug is effective in warfarin-induced hemorrhage?
A. tranexamic acid
B. vitamin K
C. vitamin B12
D. protamine sulfate
E. epinepherin
13. Which drug is effective in urokinase -induced hemorrhage?
A. tranexamic acid (because it is anti fibrinolyticus durg and urokinese is fibrinolyticus)
B. vitamin K
C. vitamin B12
D. protamine sulfate
E. epinepherin
14. All of the following factors can decrease the absorption of iron except
A.high calcium
B. Vitamin C…………..(defroxamine –potent iron chelating compound)
C. Tetracyclines
D. Tannic acid
E. decrease the amount of hydrochloric acid
15. Pernicious anemia is resulted from deficiency of
A. iron
B. folic acid
C. vitamin B12
D. gastric acid
E. intrinsic factor
16．Which drug can inhibit α-glycosidase
A. gliclazide
B. glipizide
C. gliquidon
D. acarbose
E. metformin
17. Which of the following disease is the indication of glucocorticoids?
A. psychosis
B. autoimmune hemolytic anemia
C. diabete mellitus
D. severe hypertension
E. virus infection
18. The drug that stimulates proliferation and differentiation of early and late granulocytic progenitor cells as well as macrophage and erythrocyte progenitor is
A. erythropoietin
B. vit B12
C. folic acid
D. GM-CSF
E. G-CSF
19. Anticoagulant effect of heparin is due to
A. activating the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
B. lyzing formed thromb
C. enhance the anticoagulative activity of ATIII
D. promoting platelet aggregation and destruction
E. antagonizing Vitamin
20．The antiplatelet mechanism of aspirin is
A.inhibiting synthesis of TXA2 in platelet
B.inhibiting synthesis of TXA2 in endothelium
C.promoting synthesis of PGI2 in platelet
D.promoting synthesis of PGI2 in endothelium
E. promoting synthesis of PGE2 in endothelium

TYPE X: MULTIPLE CHOICE(more then one option is correct)
1. Insulin can be used to treat
A. ketoacidosis
B. diabetic coma
C. hypertension
D. NIDDM
E. IDDM
2. Heparin and oral anticoagulant are different in
A. onset time of anticoagulant effect
B. duration of anticoagulant effect
C. intensity of anticoagulant effect
D. mechanism of anticoagulant effect
E. site of anticoagulant effect
3. Which drugs are involved in the therapy of abnormal thrombosis?
A. Anti-fibrinolysin (tranexamic acid)
B. Fibrinolytic drugs
C. Vitamin K
D. Anticoagulants
E. Antiplatelet drugs
4. Bleeding result from the Vitamin K deficiency due to:
A. excess of oral anticoagulants
B. decrease of bile acid
C. long term use of broad spectrum antibiotics
D. premature infants
E. platelet dysfunction

Assay questions
1. Please explain the mechanism of heparin’s anticoagulant effect.
2. Please describe the difference between heparin and anticoagulants.
3. Please tell the probable adverse reactions after long-time and high-dose use of glucocorticoids?
4. Please describe the pharmacological effects of glucocorticoids.

[bharat]

FROM Part CVS . ENJOY GUYS>>>>

Type A choice questions:
1. All of the following produce a significant decrease in peripheral resistance EXCEPT: answer: D
A. chronic administration of diuretics
B. hydralazine
C. ACE inhibitors
D. β-R blockers
E. Calcium channel blockers
2. Which of the following most directly describes the mechanism of action of digitalis? answer: C
A. Increases the intracellular level of ATP
B. Stimulates production of cAMP
C. inhibits sodium-potassium ATPase
D. decreases intracellular sodium concentration
E. Decreases release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
3. All of the following are useful in the treatment of digitalis overdose EXCEPT: answer: E
A. anti-digoxin Fragments
B. dietary potassium supplements for patients being treated concomitantly with diuretics
C. lidocaine
D. Phenytoin
E. Quinidine
4. Which one of the following statements concerning congestive heart failure is correct? answer: C
A. Digitoxin is more widely used than digoxin because it has a shorter half-life
B. Serum levels of digoxin can be decreased by quinidine
C. Loop diuretics are used in patients with renal insufficiency
D. Digoxin is eliminated primarily in the bile
E. Congenital heart defects are the most common cause of congestive heart failure
5. Which one of the following aggravates a digitalis induced arrhythmia? answer: D
A. Decreased serum calcium
B. Decreasing heart rate with propranolol
C. Decreased serum sodium
D. Decreased serum potassium
E. Decreased serum angiotensin
6. Which one of the following drugs decrease de novo cholesterol biosynthesis by inhibiting the enzyme HMG CoA reductase? answer: C
A. Niacin
B. Gemfibrozil
C. Lovastatin
D. Colestyramine
E. Probucol
7. Which one of the following is the most serious main side effect of statins and this effect would be increased if a statin is taken with gemfibrozil, ciclosporin or nicotinic acid. answer: B
A. Gastrointestinal problems
B. Rhabdomyolysis
C. Elevated blood pressure
D. Migraine headaches
E. palpitations
8. All of the following measures can be used in the treatment of digoxin-induced arrhythmia EXCEPT answer: B
A. stopping digoxin administration
B. diuretic agents such as furosemide are used to promote the excretion of digoxin
C. phenytoin administration
D. atropine administration
E. lidocaine administration
9. Among the following anti-hypertensive drugs, which can cause dry cough？
answer: B
A. verapamil
B. captopril
C. losartan
D. propranolol
E. nifedipine
10. The mechanism of anti-hypertensive effect of losartan is answer: C
A. decrement of renin activity
B. inhibition of angiotensin converting enzyme
C. blockade of the angiotensin Ⅱ receptors
D. increment of kinin synthesis
E. causing vasodilation directly
11. Which of the following hypertensive patients is most suited for primary therapy with hydrochlorothiazide? answer: E
A. patients with gout
B. patients with hyperlipidemia
C. young hypertensive patients with rapid resting heart rate
D. patients with impaired renal function
E. elderly patients
12. Which of the following drugs acts at central imidazoline (I1) recptors?
answer: E
A. verapamil
B. enalapril
C. hydralazine
D. minoxidil
E. clonidine
13.All of the following statements concerning nitroglycerin are correct EXCEPT:
A.It cause an elevation of intracellular cGMP
B.It undergoes significant first-pass metabolism in the liver
C.It may cause significant reflex tarchycardia
D.It significantly decreases AV conduction=
E.It can cause postual hypotention

14.The pharmacological effects of nitroglycerin are correct EXCEPT:
A. decreasing the preload
B. contracting smooth muscle=
C. decreasing the afterload
D. dilating the coronary artery
E. reducing platelet adhesion and aggregation

15.Which group of the following drugs is the first choice for variant angina pectoris:
A. calcium channel blockers =
B. β-blockers
C. nitrate
D.NSAIDs
E.anticoagulants

16.Which group of the following drugs can NOT be used in variant angina pectoris:
A. calcium channel blockers
B. β-blockers =
C. nitrate
D.NSAIDs
E.anticoagulants

17.Which one of the following adverse effects associated with nitroglycerin is CORRECT:
A.hypertention
B.throbbing headache=
C.brandycardia
D.sexual dysfunction
E.anemia

18.All of the following mechanism of action correctly match a drug EXCEPT:
A.quinidine: Block Na+ channel
B.amiodarone: Block K+ channel
C.veripamil: Block Ca++ channel
D.propranolol: Block β-adrenoceptor
E.lidocaine: Block CL— channel=

19.Which one of the following classification of antiarrythmic drugs is INCORRECT:
A.Class IB moderate potency =
B.Class IC high potency
C.Class II β-blocker
D.Class III the drugs prolonging APD
E.Class IV calcium channel blocker

20.Which one of the following statements of quinidine is INCORRECT:
A.depress conduction in atria, ventricles and His-Purkije system
B. depress pacemaker rate of ectopic pacemakers
C. increase excitability=
D. anticholinergic effect
E.α-receptor blocking effect

21.Which one of the following statements about arrythmatic drug is CORRECT:
A. They may reduce abnormal automaticity=
B. They may reduce afterdepolarization=
C. They may abolish reentry=
D. They all affect Na+ channels in the cell membrane
E. They are equally useful in artrial and ventricular arrythmias

24.Which one of the following statements about calcium channel blockers is CORRECT:
A. They mainly relax arterial smooth muscle and have little effects on venous beds=
B. The effects of diltiazem are intermediate between the dihydropyridines and verapamil=
C. Nifedipine do not have direct effects on conduction or automaticity =
D. Nifedipine can cause reflex increases in heart rate =
E. Verapamil has direct negtive effects to the heart=

25.The calcium channel blockers can be used in :
A. Arrhythmias=
B. Angina=
C. hypertension=
D. brandycardia
E. hypotension


Assay Questions
1. Why are the ACEI used as regular therapeutic drugs in the treatment of CHF at present?
2. Which drugs used in CHF would reverse myocardial remodeling and reduce overall mortality in patients with heart failure?
3. Which drugs belong to the first-line drugs therapy for mild congestive heart failure in current?
4. What is the benefits of Combined use of nitrates with Propranolol in angina pectoris
5.What is the mechenism of action of nitrates in treating agina pectoris?
6. Please describe the adverse reaction of nitroglycerin.
7.Why a patient with variant agina pectoris can not useβ-blocker?
8.Please describe the machenism and clinical use of HMG CoA reductase inhibitor.
9.Why the bile-binding resin can decrease cholestol in the blood?
10.How many classes of the first-line antihypertensive drugs used currently?
11.Please describe thme mechanism if antihypertisive effect of ACEI, β-blocker, diuretics, calcium channal blocker.

eNjOY gUYs....

[theguru417]

it's same as that said by pickle ..... Questions are not allowed to be taken away from exam hall....... so can't post distinct questions.................

[chetnarayan]

Good Work Bharat.
Keep It Up.