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Originally Posted by Oak A 20-year-old man with new onset of seizures and no history of hypertension is evaluated with a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the head, which demonstrates a mixed parenchymal and subarachnoid hemorrhage. The parenchymal hemorrhage is centered over one cerebral hemisphere. Which of the following is the most likely source of the hemorrhage? A. Arteriovenous malformation
B. Berry aneurysm
C. Bridging vein
D. Charcot-Bouchard aneurysm
E. Middle meningeal artery
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I'd go for B. Arteriovenous malformation is a risk factor for intraparenchymal haemorrhage but is not as common as it would be for a berry aneurysm being a source of a subarachnoid haemorrhage.Charcot-bouchard microaneurysms are associated with chronic hypertension.Middle meningeal artery is an unlikely source.